Baseball Rule Question

Nate Colbert 17 · Mar 13, 2016

This was posed to me recently and I could not come up with a way to make it work.

Is it possible for one team to hit (or be credited with) a home run without a pitch being thrown by the opposing team?

Forfeit?
Intentional walk?
Balk?

Hendersonfan · Mar 13, 2016

I can't imagine a scenario in which 4 bases could be credited on one play without a pitch. Intentional walk is out since that requires a pitch. A balk would only move the runner up one base.

Brewer Andy · Mar 13, 2016

Credited with a HR? I would think absolutely not

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carlitoson · Mar 13, 2016

Does T-ball count?
LOL.

A_Pharis · Mar 13, 2016

Well... we saw a hit being credited when a ball being thrown back to the pitcher hit the bat and ricocheted into the field of play.
Is there anyway for that scenario without a pitch being thrown?

Balk. Pick off towards first that is overthrown. Runner advances to third. Throw to third is overthrown. Runner advances. Throw to home (late or not is irrelevant). Catcher ends up with ball and..

Well, that's just getting too crazy to believe to be feasible.

Therion · Mar 13, 2016

A batter could reach home without a pitch being thrown, but no way for it to be credited as a homerun.

r2d2 · Mar 14, 2016

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